Search and find articles and topics quickly and accurately! See different advanced ways to search for articles on this site.
A Great Response by Dr. Zakir Naik
"I and the Father are One"
"I am the Way, the Truth and the Light"
|Also from a text-debate that I had
on this website's blog:
Regarding all in GOD Almighty are One, and GOD Almighty is One in
all Believers, EXACTLY
AS JESUS AND GOD ARE ONE,
here is the verse:
John 10:30, I and My Father are One
Why do Christians quote this verse?
By Sami Zaatari
Often when debates come up with Christians on the divinity of Christ, the passage from chapter ten in the book of John comes up; this passage is verse 30, which basically reads:
30 I and my Father are one
Now I don’t understand why many Christians would quote this verse, specifically Trinitarians, because what does this verse prove? Trinitarians do not believe Jesus is the Father, so why do they quote it? Are they quoting it to try and show that Jesus is equal to the Father? Well that isn’t true, since the Gospel of John shows the opposite, in fact if we quote one verse back we read:
29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
This is verse 29, it comes right before verse 30, and in verse 29 Jesus says the Father is greater than ALL, this obviously includes Jesus since he is not the Father. So therefore how to Christians try and assume that this verse shows equality between Jesus and the Father is beyond me, just a verse before it Jesus says the Father is greater than everyone!
In fact this is not the first time that Jesus says the Father is greater than him, he does it again later:
28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I (John 14:28)
So here we once again have Jesus claiming the Father is greater than him, so how is Jesus equal to the Father when Jesus says the contrary? Now Christians have come up with a way of trying to explain this verse off, they say that Jesus was talking as a man here, that as a man the Father is greater than him, they try and say that the Father meant he is greater than Jesus in rank and authority and not in essence.
However so what did Jesus mean in John 10 when Jesus said the Father is greater than ALL? Jesus placed himself in the category of ALL people, so therefore the Christian response will not work for John 10:29. It must be said though that the Christian response does not work for John chapter 14:28 neither, because the Christian argues from silence and is arguing something they have yet to prove. Christians cannot prove that Jesus has 2 natures, they can never get a single quote from the lips of Jesus saying I am man and Divine, that I have 2 natures and I gave one up and took on the man nature, this is non-existent, so therefore the response is from silence provided with no proof or a solid basis.
1-The fact is the Bible shows that the Father is greater than Jesus in essence, the Father is all-knowing and Jesus is not.
2-The Father gives Jesus everything from miracle to doctrine.
3-Jesus begs the Father to save him, obviously showing that life and death is controlled by the Father and NOT Jesus.
For all these arguments the Christian will say as man Jesus is not all-knowing, as man Jesus receives things from the Father, however so I will kindly ask the Christian bring this proof from the words of Jesus, they shall never be able to do it, this doctrine is an invention and not something to be found from Jesus.
So therefore in conclusion, John 10:30 proves nothing in support of the divinity of Jesus, it does not show equality, since Jesus made it clear that the Father is greater than him, so therefore Jesus is not equal with the Father.
Rebuttals, and exposing the lies of the Answering Islam
Jesus is Yahweh the Son? See how Christians got this very wrong in the NT,
using Jesus' words himself!
Also, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1 John 2:22?
Note: The (*) links below are html backups of the website's blog topic threads, in case the blog and its database are down.
1 John 2:22-23 are discussed further down in details in this table.
Father and Son Definitions:
1- What does "The Father" really mean in the Bible? How is it defined in Islam? (see point #5 below) How does the Bible really define it?
2- What does "Son of GOD" really mean in the Bible?
(a)- GOD Almighty, who is not seen by anyone or anything, nor is like unto anyone or anything.
(b)- The World of Command, which is the invisible world of the Beings that were made by the Word and the Spirit.
(c)- The World of Creation, the flush and blood, dust and water physical world and Universes (plural).
Also visit: Is the Noble Quran a Creator or Creation?
Christians often quote the following verses to prove that Islam is the Anti-Christ:
1 John 2
5- What does the Glorious Quran say about the “Father” and “Son” titles:
So, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1john 2:22? No it isn't. Here are some Quran and Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON" in more details:
(a)- Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى):
(b)- FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا):
We further read the following in the Bible:
So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND". Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:
[002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.
[003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!
[004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).
So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:
Is the Protector.
Please visit the following link to further see what Words the Glorious Quran uses for these words and definitions:
Regarding the following verse, and many others like it:
Let us look at Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 from the Glorious Quran:
[027:059] Say: Praise be to God, and Peace on his servants whom He has chosen اصطفى (for his Message). (Who) is better?- God or the false gods they associate (with Him)?
27:59 قل الحمد لله وسلام على عباده الذين اصطفى ءالله خير اما يشركون
[003:033] God did choose اصطفى Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of 'Imran above all people,-
3:33 ان الله اصطفى ادم ونوحا وال ابراهيم وال عمران على العالمين
[003:042] Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! God hath chosen thee اصطفاك and purified thee- chosen thee above the women of all nations.
3:42 واذ قالت الملائكة يامريم ان الله اصطفاك وطهرك واصطفاك على نساء العالمين
Moses! I have chosen thee
اصطفيتك above (other) men, by the mission I
(have given thee) and the words I (have spoken to thee): take then
the (revelation) which I give thee, and be of those who give
[022:075] God chooses يصطفي messengers from angels and from men for God is He Who hears and sees (all things).
22:75 الله يصطفي من الملائكة رسلا ومن الناس ان الله سميع بصير
[035:032] Then We have given the Book for inheritance to such of Our Servants as We have chosen اصطفينا: but there are among them some who wrong their own souls; some who follow a middle course; and some who are, by God's leave, foremost in good deeds; that is the highest Grace.
35:32 ثم اورثنا الكتاب الذين اصطفينا من عبادنا فمنهم ظالم لنفسه ومنهم مقتصد ومنهم سابق بالخيرات باذن الله ذلك هو الفضل الكبير
[038:047] They were, in Our sight, truly, of the company of the Elect المصطفين and the Good.
38:47 وانهم عندنا لمن المصطفين الاخيار
[039:004] Had God wished to take to Himself an (actual) son, He could have chosen لاصطفى whom He pleased out of those whom He doth create: but Glory be to Him! (He is above such things.) He is God, the One, the Irresistible.
39:4 لو اراد الله ان يتخذ ولدا لاصطفى مما يخلق مايشاء سبحانه هو الله الواحد القهار
Furthermore, when Jesus was asked about when the Hour will come, he replied by saying that only GOD Almighty Knows, and that no one knows, and that Jesus himself also didn't know. Please visit:
Jesus spelled it out clearly that he knew NOT. And as to calling GOD Almighty "Father", and that Islam denies that GOD Almighty is an ACTUAL FATHER to anyone, in Islam GOD Almighty is called:
1- Rab - Lord, Father (you are the Rab of your home for being the husband and the father).
2- Wali - Guardian.
In the old Aramaic and Hebrew, GOD Almighty was called what-is-equivalent-to-Islam our Rab and Wali. But that doesn't make GOD Almighty our actual Father. This is exactly as Judaism metaphors such as idolatry is equivalent to spiritual adultery. No Jew is actually married to GOD Almighty to actually commit a personal marriage-adultery against GOD Almighty! Yet, the Jews use metaphors like these. Islam came to straighten all of this out and to set the record straight that GOD Almighty has no son and no daughter. Otherwise, why would GOD Almighty torture us to Hell if we were His perfect sons and daughters?? No imperfect being could be an actual son of GOD Almighty (and no being is the son or daughter of GOD Almighty, period!):
[005:018] (Both) the Jews and the Christians say: "We are sons of God, and his beloved." Say: "Why then doth He punish you for your sins? Nay, ye are but men,- of the men he hath created: He forgiveth whom He pleaseth, and He punisheth whom He pleaseth: and to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that is between: and unto Him is the final goal (of all)"
Again, please visit: http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203 (backup).
The Logical Fallacy and Corruption of 1 John 2:22:
(d)- Let's thoroughly look at the logical fallacy of this verse and its corruption:
1- " Who is the liar"?? Or should the text say who is the one who disbelieves?
6- Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1, *] . The "im" in Hebrew is a majestic plural for GOD Almighty. The root Word is "Eloh". And the more original Jews such as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im. And when you yourself pronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah. Jews do call Him: Allah-im. Aramaic-speaking people also call GOD Almighty Allah. See the following videos for Biblical references and proofs. Also, pre-Islamic Biblical archeological findings have GOD Almighty as "Allah". So the Original Holy Name for GOD Almighty is not Eloh. It is Allah! Eloh is a Hebrew dialect, which not all Hebrew speakers use anyway. Allah had always been the Original and Universal GOD Almighty even before birth of Judaism, and the existence Hebrew. And Hebrew is a developed language from Phoenician. See the following links: